[2022] CCSP Answers CCSP Free Demo Are Based On The Real Exam
CCSP [Jan-2022 Newly Released] Exam Questions For You To Pass
Conclusion
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NEW QUESTION 391
What is the intellectual property protection for a confidential recipe for muffins?
- A. Copyright
- B. Patent
- C. Trademark
- D. Trade secret
Answer: D
Explanation:
Confidential recipes unique to the organization are trade secrets. The other answers listed are answers to other questions.
NEW QUESTION 392
For optimal security, trust zones are used for network segmentation and isolation. They allow for the separation of various systems and tiers, each with its own security level.
Which of the following is typically used to allow administrative personnel access to trust zones?
- A. SSH
- B. VPN
- C. TLS
- D. IPSec
Answer: B
Explanation:
Virtual private networks (VPNs) are used to provide administrative personnel with secure communication channels through security systems and into trust zones. They allow staff who perform system administration tasks to have access to ports and systems that are not allowed from the public Internet.
IPSec is an encryption protocol for point-to-point communications at the network level, and may be used within a trust zone but not to give access into a trust zone. TLS enables encryption of communications between systems and services and would likely be used to secure the VPN communications, but it does not represent the overall concept being asked for in the question. SSH allows for secure shell access to systems, but not for general access into trust zones.
NEW QUESTION 393
TLS provides and ________ for ________ communications.
Response:
- A. Privacy, security
- B. Privacy, integrity
- C. Enhancement, privacy
- D. Security, optimization
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 394
Which of the following is not a factor an organization might use in the cost-benefit analysis when deciding whether to migrate to a cloud environment?
- A. Shifting from capital expenditures to support IT investment to operational expenditures
- B. Branding associated with which cloud provider might be selected
- C. Pooled resources in the cloud
- D. The time savings and efficiencies offered by the cloud service
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 395
Which document will enforce uptime and availability requirements between the cloud customer and cloud provider?
Response:
- A. Regulation
- B. Contract
- C. Service level agreement
- D. Operational level agreement
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 396
Which data state would be most likely to use TLS as a protection mechanism?
- A. Archived
- B. Data in transit
- C. Data in use
- D. Data at rest
Answer: B
Explanation:
TLS would be used with data in transit, when packets are exchanged between clients or services and sent across a network. During the data-in-use state, the data is already protected via a technology such as TLS as it is exchanged over the network and then relies on other technologies such as digital signatures for protection while being used. The data-at-rest state primarily uses encryption for stored file objects. Archived data would be the same as data at rest.
NEW QUESTION 397
What is the concept of segregating information or processes, within the same system or application, for security reasons?
- A. Sandboxing
- B. Pooling
- C. fencing
- D. Cellblocking
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Sandboxing involves segregating and isolating information or processes from others within the same system or application, typically for security concerns. This is generally used for data isolation (for example, keeping different communities and populations of users isolated from other similar data).
NEW QUESTION 398
When using an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) solution, what is the capability provided to the customer?
Response:
- A. To provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources when the consumer is not able to deploy and run arbitrary software, which can include operating systems and applications.
- B. To provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources when the consumer is able to deploy and run arbitrary software, which can include operating systems and applications.
- C. To provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources when the auditor is able to deploy and run arbitrary software, which can include operating systems and applications.
- D. To provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources when the provider is able to deploy and run arbitrary software, which can include operating systems and applications.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 399
What strategy involves hiding data in a data set to prevent someone from identifying specific individuals based on other data fields present?
- A. Obfuscation
- B. Masking
- C. Anonymization
- D. Tokenization
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
With data anonymization, data is manipulated in such a way so as to prevent the identification of an individual through various data objects, and is often used in conjunction with other concepts such as masking.
NEW QUESTION 400
You are the security director for a chain of automotive repair centers across several states.
Your company uses a cloud SaaS provider, for business functions that cross several of the locations of your facilities, such as: 1) ordering parts 2) logistics and inventory 3) billing, and 4) marketing.
The manager at one of your newest locations reports that there is a competing car repair company that has a logo that looks almost exactly like the one your company uses. What will most likely affect the determination of who has ownership of the logo?
Response:
- A. The jurisdiction where both businesses are using the logo simultaneously
- B. Whoever first applied for legal protection of the logo
- C. Whichever entity has the most customers that recognize the logo
- D. Whoever first used the logo
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 401
Which of the following is NOT one of the components of multifactor authentication?
- A. Something the user knows
- B. Something the user is
- C. Something the user sends
- D. Something the user has
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Multifactor authentication systems are composed of something the user knows, has, and/or is, not something the user sends. Multifactor authentication commonly uses something that a user knows, has, and/or is (such as biometrics or features).
NEW QUESTION 402
Which is the lowest level of the CSA STAR program?
- A. Attestation
- B. Hybridization
- C. Continuous monitoring
- D. Self-assessment
Answer: D
Explanation:
The lowest level is Level 1, which is self-assessment, Level 2 is an external third-party attestation, and Level 3 is a continuous-monitoring program. Hybridization does not exist as part of the CSA STAR program.
NEW QUESTION 403
Which of the following threat types involves an application developer leaving references to internal information and configurations in code that is exposed to the client?
- A. Unvalidated redirect and forwards
- B. Security misconfiguration
- C. Sensitive data exposure
- D. Insecure direct object references
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
An insecure direct object reference occurs when a developer has in their code a reference to something on the application side, such as a database key, the directory structure of the application, configuration information about the hosting system, or any other information that pertains to the workings of the application that should not be exposed to users or the network. Unvalidated redirects and forwards occur when an application has functions to forward users to other sites, and these functions are not properly secured to validate the data and redirect requests, allowing spoofing for malware of phishing attacks.
Sensitive data exposure occurs when an application does not use sufficient encryption and other security controls to protect sensitive application data. Security misconfigurations occur when applications and systems are not properly configured or maintained in a secure manner.
NEW QUESTION 404
What type of storage structure does object storage employ to maintain files?
- A. Flat
- B. Directory
- C. Hierarchical
- D. tree
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Object storage uses a flat file system to hold storage objects; it assigns files a key value that is then used to access them, rather than relying on directories or descriptive filenames. Typical storage layouts such as tree, directory, and hierarchical structures are used within volume storage, whereas object storage maintains a flat structure with key values.
NEW QUESTION 405
You are the security manager for a small surgical center. Your organization is reviewing upgrade options for its current, on-premises data center. In order to best meet your needs, which one of the following options would you recommend to senior management?
Response:
- A. Staying with the current data center
- B. Leasing a data center that is currently owned by another firm
- C. Renting private cloud space in a Tier 2 data center
- D. Building a completely new data center
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 406
What concept does the D represent within the STRIDE threat model?
- A. Data loss
- B. Data breach
- C. Denial of service
- D. Distributed
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Any application can be a possible target of denial of service (DoS) attacks. From the application side, the developers should minimize how many operations are performed for unauthenticated users. This will keep the application running as quickly as possible and using the least amount of system resources to help minimize the impact of any such attacks. None of the other options provided is the correct term.
NEW QUESTION 407
Which of the following is NOT a regulatory system from the United States federal government?
- A. PCI DSS
- B. HIPAA
- C. FISMA
- D. SOX
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The payment card industry data security standard (PCI DSS) pertains to organizations that handle credit card transactions and is an industry regulatory standard, not a governmental one.
NEW QUESTION 408
Which audit type has been largely replaced by newer approaches since 2011?
- A. SAS-70
- B. SOC Type 2
- C. SOC Type 1
- D. SSAE-16
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
SAS-70 reports were replaced in 2011 with the SSAE-16 reports throughout the industry.
NEW QUESTION 409
Which aspect of SaaS will alleviate much of the time and energy organizations spend on compliance (specifically baselines)?
- A. Development
- B. Licensing
- C. Maintenance
- D. Standardization
Answer: D
Explanation:
With the entire software platform being controlled by the cloud provider, the standardization of configurations and versioning is done automatically for the cloud customer. This alleviates the customer's need to track upgrades and releases for its own systems and development; instead, the onus is on the cloud provider. Although licensing is the responsibility of the cloud customer within SaaS, it does not have an impact on compliance requirements. Within SaaS, development and maintenance of the system are solely the responsibility of the cloud provider.
NEW QUESTION 410
What is one of the benefits of implementing an egress monitoring solution?
Response:
- A. Interviewing data owners
- B. Inventorying data assets
- C. Protecting against natural disasters
- D. Preventing DDoS attacks
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 411
Which kind of SSAE audit reviews controls dealing with the organization's controls for assuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data?
- A. SOC 4
- B. SOC 1
- C. SOC 2
- D. SOC 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SOC 2 deals with the CIA triad. SOC 1 is for financial reporting. SOC 3 is only an attestation by the auditor. There is no SOC 4.
NEW QUESTION 412
A main objective for an organization when utilizing cloud services is to avoid vendor lock-in so as to ensure flexibility and maintain independence.
Which core concept of cloud computing is most related to vendor lock-in?
- A. Interoperability
- B. Scalability
- C. Reversibility
- D. Portability
Answer: D
Explanation:
Portability is the ability for a cloud customer to easily move their systems, services, and applications among different cloud providers. By avoiding reliance on proprietary APIs and other vendor-specific cloud features, an organization can maintain flexibility to move among the various cloud providers with greater ease. Reversibility refers to the ability for a cloud customer to quickly and easy remove all their services and data from a cloud provider. Interoperability is the ability to reuse services and components for other applications and uses.
Scalability refers to the ability of a cloud environment to add or remove resources to meet current demands.
NEW QUESTION 413
Which of the following is NOT one of the components of multifactor authentication?
- A. Something the user knows
- B. Something the user is
- C. Something the user sends
- D. Something the user has
Answer: C
Explanation:
Multifactor authentication systems are composed of something the user knows, has, and/or is, not something the user sends. Multifactor authentication commonly uses something that a user knows, has, and/or is (such as biometrics or features).
NEW QUESTION 414
Which of the following does NOT relate to the hiding of sensitive data from data sets?
- A. Obfuscation
- B. Federation
- C. Masking
- D. Anonymization
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Federation pertains to authenticating systems between different organizations.
NEW QUESTION 415
Which of the following roles involves testing, monitoring, and securing cloud services for an organization?
- A. Cloud service administrator
- B. Cloud service integrator
- C. Cloud service user
- D. Cloud service business manager
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The cloud service administrator is responsible for testing cloud services, monitoring services, administering security for services, providing usage reports on cloud services, and addressing problem reports
NEW QUESTION 416
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