Best Way To Study For ISACA CRISC Exam Brilliant CRISC Exam Questions PDF
Updated Verified Pass CRISC Exam - Real Questions & Answers
Potential Candidates
The candidates for this certification are the professionals with ample experience in the management of IT risks. It is also aimed at the individuals with the relevant skills and competence in designing, implementing, monitoring, and maintaining information security controls.
ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Consultants CRISC Exam
ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Consultants CRISC Exam is related to the Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Certification. This CRISC Exam validates the ability to identify potential threats and vulnerabilities to the organization’s people, processes and technology to enable IT Risk Analysis. It also tests the candidate skills to develop a complete set of IT risk scenarios based on available information to determine the potential impact on business objectives and operations. It also deals with the ability to Analyze risk scenarios based an organizational criterion to determine the likelihood and impact an identified risk and ensure that risk ownership is assigned at the proper level to establish clear lines of accountability. IT Risk Administrators Staff Risk and Control Monitoring Administrators and Reporting Personal usually hold or pursue this certification and you can expect the same job role after completion of this certification.
An A-list certification exam like the ISACA CRISC has a lot in store for its brave challengers. If you identify yourself as part of this daring crowd, you should pursue this certification by preparing diligently. It’s the first rule to keep in mind when beginning your venture as an ISACA candidate. So, in this post, you’ll learn the process of elimination when dealing with CRISC exam prep resources.
NEW QUESTION 17
Which of the following is MOST influential when management makes risk response decisions?
- A. Detection risk
- B. Audit risk
- C. Risk appetite
- D. Residual risk
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 18
Which of the following is the MOST effective inhibitor of relevant and efficient communication?
- A. A false sense of confidence at the top on the degree of actual exposure related to IT and lack of a well- understood direction for risk management from the top down
- B. Existence of a blame culture
- C. Misalignment between real risk appetite and translation into policies
- D. The perception that the enterprise is trying to cover up known risk from stakeholders
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
Blame culture should be avoided. It is the most effective inhibitor of relevant and efficient communication. In a blame culture, business units tend to point the finger at IT when projects are not delivered on time or do not meet expectations. In doing so, they fail to realize how the business unit's involvement up front affects project success. In extreme cases, the business unit may assign blame for a failure to meet the expectations that the unit never clearly communicated. Executive leadership must identify and quickly control a blame culture if collaboration is to be fostered throughout the enterprise.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This is the consequence of poor risk communication, not the inhibitor of effective communication.
B: This is the consequence of poor risk communication, not the inhibitor of effective communication.
D: Misalignment between real risk appetite and translation into policies is an inhibitor of effective communication, but is not a prominent as existence of blame culture.
NEW QUESTION 19
You are the product manager in your enterprise. You have identified that new technologies, products and services are introduced in your enterprise time-to-time. What should be done to prevent the efficiency and effectiveness of controls due to these changes?
- A. Perform Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
- B. Add more controls
- C. Nothing, efficiency and effectiveness of controls are not affected by these changes
- D. Receive timely feedback from risk assessments and through key risk indicators, and update controls
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation:
As new technologies, products and services are introduced, compliance requirements become more complex and strict; business processes and related information flows change over time. These changes can often affect the efficiency and effectiveness of controls. Formerly effective controls become inefficient, redundant or obsolete and have to be removed or replaced.
Therefore, the monitoring process has to receive timely feedback from risk assessments and through key risk indicators (KRIs) to ensure an effective control life cycle.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Most of the time, the addition of controls results in degradation of the efficiency and profitability of a process without adding an equitable level of corresponding risk mitigation, hence better controls are adopted in place of adding more controls.
C: A BIA is a discovery process meant to uncover the inner workings of any process. It helps to identify about actual procedures, shortcuts, workarounds and the types of failure that may occur. It involves determining the purpose of the process, who performs the process and its output. It also involves determining the value of the process output to the enterprise.
D: Efficiency and effectiveness of controls are not affected by the changes in technology or product, so some measure should be taken.
NEW QUESTION 20
Which of the following terms is described in the statement below?
"They are the prime monitoring indicators of the enterprise, and are highly relevant and possess a high probability of predicting or indicating important risk. "
- A. Explanation:
Key Risk Indicators are the prime monitoring indicators of the enterprise. KRIs are highly relevant and possess a high probability of predicting or indicating important risk. KRIs help in avoiding excessively large number of risk indicators to manage and report that a large enterprise may have. - B. Risk indicators
- C. Lag indicators
- D. Lead indicators
- E. Key risk indicators
- F. is incorrect. Risk indicators are metrics used to indicate risk thresholds, i.e., it gives indication when a risk level is approaching a high or unacceptable level of risk. The main objective of a risk indicator is to ensure tracking and reporting mechanisms that alert staff about the potential risks.
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION 21
A management team is on an aggressive mission to launch a new product to penetrate new markets and overlooks IT risk factors, threats, and vulnerabilities. This scenario BEST demonstrates an organization's risk:
- A. tolerance.
- B. analysis.
- C. management.
- D. culture.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 22
Which of following is NOT used for measurement of Critical Success Factors of the project?
- A. Customer service
- B. Quantity
- C. Productivity
- D. Quality
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, D: Productivity, quality and customer service are used for evaluating critical service factor of any particular project.
NEW QUESTION 23
Which of the following should be included in a risk scenario to be used for risk analysis?
- A. Risk appetite
- B. Risk tolerance
- C. Threat type
- D. Residual risk
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 24
You have been assigned as the Project Manager for a new project that involves building of a new roadway between the city airport to a designated point within the city. However, you notice that the transportation permit issuing authority is taking longer than the planned time to issue the permit to begin construction. What would you classify this as?
- A. Project Issue
- B. Risk Update
- C. Status Update
- D. Project Risk
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation:
This is a project issue. It is easy to confuse this as a project risk; however, a project risk is always in the future.
In this case, the delay by the permitting agency has already happened; hence this is a project issue. The possible impact of this delay on the project cost, schedule, or performance can be classified as a project risk.
Incorrect Answers:
A: It is easy to confuse this as a project risk; however, a project risk is always in the future. In this case, the delay by the permitting agency has already happened; hence this is a project issue.
B, C: These are options are not valid.
NEW QUESTION 25
Which of the following BEST indicates the effectiveness of anti-malware software?
- A. Number of staff hours lost due to malware attacks
- B. Number of successful attacks by malicious software
- C. Number of downtime hours in business critical servers
- D. Number of patches made to anti-malware software
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 26
Which of the following is the BEST measure of the effectiveness of an employee deprovisioning process?
- A. Number of termination requests processed per reporting period
- B. Number of days taken for HR to provide instructions to IT after staff separation dates
- C. Number of days taken for IT to remove access after receipt of HR instructions
- D. Number of days taken to remove access after staff separation dates
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 27
Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the security risk associated with wearable technology in the workplace?
- A. Monitor employee usage.
- B. Develop risk awareness training.
- C. Identify the potential risk.
- D. Assess the potential risk.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 28
Which of the following is an administrative control?
- A. Data loss prevention program
- B. Water detection
- C. Reasonableness check
- D. Session timeout
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION 29
Winch of the following can be concluded by analyzing the latest vulnerability report for the it infrastructure?
- A. Impact of technology risk
- B. Impact of operational risk
- C. Likelihood of a threat
- D. Control weakness
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 30
You are the project manager in your enterprise. You have identified risk that is noticeable failure threatening the success of certain goals of your enterprise. In which of the following levels do this identified risk exists?
- A. Extremely high risk
- B. Moderate risk
- C. High risk
- D. Low risk
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Moderate risks are noticeable failure threatening the success of certain goals.
Incorrect Answers:
B: High risk is the significant failure impacting in certain goals not being met.
C: Extremely high risk are the risks that has large impact on enterprise and are most likely results in failure with severe consequences.
D: Low risks are the risk that results in certain unsuccessful goals.
NEW QUESTION 31
Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of engaging the risk owner during the risk assessment process?
- A. Identification of controls gaps that may lead to noncompliance
- B. Accurate measurement of loss impact
- C. Early detection of emerging threats
- D. Prioritization of risk action plans across departments
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION 32
Which of the following individuals is responsible for identifying process requirements, approving process design and managing process performance?
- A. Risk owner
- B. Chief information officer
- C. Explanation:
Business process owners are the individuals responsible for identifying process requirements, approving process design and managing process performance. In general, a business process owner must be at an appropriately high level in the enterprise and have authority to commit resources to process-specific risk management activities. - D. Chief financial officer
- E. Business process owner
Answer: E
Explanation:
is incorrect. Risk owner for each risk should be the person who has the most influence over its outcome. Selecting the risk owner thus usually involves considering the source of risk and identifying the person who is best placed to understand and implement what needs to be done. Answer: C is incorrect. Chief financial officer is the most senior official of the enterprise who is accountable for financial planning, record keeping, investor relations and financial risks. Answer: D is incorrect. Chief information officer is the most senior official of the enterprise who is accountable for IT advocacy; aligning IT and business strategies; and planning, resourcing and managing the delivery of IT services and information and the deployment of associated human resources.
NEW QUESTION 33
A peer review of a risk assessment finds that a relevant threat community was not included. Mitigation of the risk will require substantial changes to a software application. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
- A. Build a business case to remediate the fix.
- B. Determine the impact of the missing threat.
- C. Research the types of attacks the threat can present.
- D. Ask the business to make a budget request to remediate the problem.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 34
An IT risk practitioner is evaluating an organization's change management controls over the last six months. The GREATEST concern would be an increase in:
- A. change-related exceptions per month.
- B. the average implementation time for changes.
- C. number of user stories approved for implementation.
- D. rolled back changes below management's thresholds.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 35
The risk associated with an asset after controls are applied can be expressed as:
- A. a function of the cost and effectiveness of controls.
- B. the magnitude of an impact.
- C. a function of the likelihood and impact.
- D. the likelihood of a given threat.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 36
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