Free CAPM Exam Files Downloaded Instantly 100% Dumps & Practice Exam [Q345-Q364]

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PMI CAPM (Certified Associate in Project Management) Certification Exam is a globally recognized certification for individuals who are starting their careers in project management. Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) certification is designed to validate a candidate's fundamental knowledge of project management concepts and processes. The PMI CAPM certification is offered by the Project Management Institute (PMI), a leading organization for project management professionals worldwide.


The CAPM certification is a great way to gain credibility and recognition as a project management professional. It is an ideal certification for those who are just starting their career in project management or those who are looking to transition into this field. Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) certification demonstrates to employers that the holder has the knowledge and skills necessary to contribute to project success. Additionally, the CAPM certification can increase job opportunities and earning potential for those who hold it.

 

NEW QUESTION # 345
In the Define Activities process, the schedule management plan is used to:

  • A. Document and support the project change requests.
  • B. Capture the lessons learned from other projects for comparison.
  • C. Prescribe the level of detail needed to manage the work.
  • D. Contain the standard activity list.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 346
Which Define Activities tool or technique is used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts?

  • A. Document analysis
  • B. Decomposition
  • C. Inspection
  • D. Project analysis

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
5.4.2.1 Decomposition
Decomposition is a technique used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts. The work package is the work defined at the lowest level of the WBS for which cost and duration can be estimated and managed. The level of decomposition is often guided by the degree of control needed to effectively manage the project. The level of detail for work packages will vary with the size and complexity of the project. Decomposition of the total project work into work packages generally involves the following activities:
Identifying and analyzing the deliverables and related work;

Structuring and organizing the WBS;

Decomposing the upper WBS levels into lower-level detailed components;

Developing and assigning identification codes to the WBS components; and

Verifying that the degree of decomposition of the deliverables is appropriate.

Process: 6.2 Define Activities
Definition: The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is to break down work packages into activities that provide a basis for estimating, scheduling, executing, monitoring, and controlling the project work.
Inputs
1. Schedule management plan
2. Scope baseline
3. Enterprise environmental factors
4. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Decomposition
2. Rolling wave planning
3. Expert judgment
Outputs
1. Activity list
2. Activity attributes
3. Milestone list


NEW QUESTION # 347
Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?

  • A. Fixed-price contracts
  • B. Time and Material contracts (T&M)
  • C. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)
  • D. Cost-reimbursable contracts

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation:
Fixed-price contracts. This category of contracts involves setting a fixed total price for a defined product, service, or result to be provided. Fixed-price contracts may also incorporate financial incentives for achieving or exceeding selected project objectives, such as schedule delivery dates, cost and technical performance, or anything that can be quantified and subsequently measured. Sellers under fixed-price contracts are legally obligated to complete such contracts, with possible financial damages if they do not. Under the fixed-price arrangement, buyers need to precisely specify the product or services being procured. Changes in scope may be accommodated, but generally with an increase in contract price.


NEW QUESTION # 348
A project conducts regular standup meetings to keep everyone updated on what each one of them is working on.
What type communication is this?

  • A. Formal
  • B. Informal
  • C. Unofficial
  • D. Hierarchical

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 349
Due to new market conditions a five-year project requires a full revision of project objectives.
Which components of the stakeholder engagement plan need to be updated?

  • A. Scope and impact of change to stakeholders
  • B. Engagement level of key stakeholders
  • C. Project scope and stakeholder goals
  • D. Stakeholder expectations for the project

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 350
The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:

  • A. in line with a measured degree of conformity.
  • B. out of the process.
  • C. in a specified range of acceptable results.
  • D. out of the hands of the customer.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 351
Which contract type is least desirable to a vendor?

  • A. Firm fixed price (FFP)
  • B. Fixed price with economic price adjustment (FPEPA)
  • C. Cost plus award fee (CPAF)
  • D. Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 352
An imposed date for completion of the project by the customer is an example of a project:

  • A. deliverable
  • B. constraint
  • C. exclusion
  • D. assumption

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Volume E


NEW QUESTION # 353
An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:

  • A. stakeholder register.
  • B. project scope statement.
  • C. requirements management plan.
  • D. project management plan.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
5.2.1.5 Stakeholder Register
Described in Section 13.1.3.1. The stakeholder register is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on the requirements. The stakeholder register also captures major requirements and main expectations stakeholders may have for the project.
13.1.3.1 Stakeholder Register
The main output of the Identify Stakeholders process is the stakeholder register. This contains all details related to the identified stakeholders including, but not limited to:
Identification information. Name, organizational position, location, role in the project, contact

information;
Assessment information. Major requirements, main expectations, potential influence in the project,

phase in the life cycle with the most interest; and
Stakeholder classification. Internal/external, supporter/neutral/resistor, etc.

The stakeholder register should be consulted and updated on a regular basis, as stakeholders may change-or new ones identified-throughout the life cycle of the project.
Process: 5.2 Collect Requirements
Definition: The process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet project objectives.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it provides the basis for defining and managing the project scope including product scope.
Inputs
1. Scope management plan
2. Requirements management plan
3. Stakeholder management plan
4. Project charter
5. Stakeholder register
Tools & Techniques
1. Interviews
2. Focus groups
3. Facilitated workshops
4. Group creativity techniques
5. Group decision-making techniques
6. Questionnaires and surveys
7. Observations
8. Prototypes
9. Benchmarking
10.Context diagrams
11.Document analysis
Outputs
1. Requirements documentation
2. Requirements traceability matrix


NEW QUESTION # 354
In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?

  • A. Initiating
  • B. Planning
  • C. Closing
  • D. Executing

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Volume D


NEW QUESTION # 355
In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?

  • A. Project Cost Management
  • B. Project Scope Management
  • C. Project Integration Management
  • D. Project Time Management

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 356
In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:

  • A. part-time
  • B. full-time
  • C. occasional
  • D. unlimited

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation:
Project managers have the highest level of power and authority in a projectized organization. They also have high levels of power and authority in a strong matrix; however, a matrix organization is a blend of functional and projectized organizations, and therefore, the project manager does not have quite the same level of authority as they would in a projectized organization.


NEW QUESTION # 357
The document that guides project execution, monitoring and control, and closure is called:

  • A. The execution plan
  • B. The project charter
  • C. The integration plan
  • D. The project management plan

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 358
Which written document helps monitor who is responsible for resolving specific problems and concerns by a target date?

  • A. Issue Log
  • B. Project Plan
  • C. Scope Document
  • D. Responsibility Matrix

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation:
9.4.1.4 Issue Log
Issues arise in the course of managing the project team. An issue log can be used to document and monitor who is responsible for resolving specific issues by a target date.


NEW QUESTION # 359
If you established a contingency reserve including time, money, and resources, how are you handling risk?

  • A. Accepting
  • B. Transferring
  • C. Avoiding
  • D. Mitigating

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 360
What communication methods would a project manager use for overall effective project communication?

  • A. Push communication, pull communication, interpersonal communication
  • B. Pull communication, interactive communication, interpersonal communication
  • C. Interactive communication, push communication, pull communication
  • D. Interactive communication, push communication, interpersonal communication

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 361
A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables is called a:

  • A. fishbone diagram
  • B. tornado diagram
  • C. triangular distribution
  • D. beta distribution

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation
Explanation:
11.4.2.2 Quantitative Risk Analysis and Modeling Techniques page 337
Commonly used techniques use both event-oriented and project-oriented analysis approaches, including:
* Sensitivity analysis. Sensitivity analysis helps to determine which risks have the most potential impact on the project. It helps to understand how the variations in project's objectives correlate with variations in different uncertainties. Conversely, it examines the extent to which the uncertainty of each project element affects the objective being studied when all other uncertain elements are held at their baseline values. One typical display of sensitivity analysis is the tornado diagram (Figure 11-15), which is useful for comparing relative importance and impact of variables that have a high degree of uncertainty to those that are more stable.
The Tornado diagram is also helpful in analyzing risk-taking scenarios enabled on specific risks whose quantitative analysis highlights possible benefits greater than corresponding identified negative impacts. A tornado diagram is a special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables. In a tornado diagram, the Y-axis contains each type of uncertainty at base values, and the X- axis contains the spread or correlation of the uncertainty to the studied output. In this figure, each uncertainty contains a horizontal bar and is ordered vertically to show uncertainties with a decreasing spread from the base values.


NEW QUESTION # 362
What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

  • A. Cost over the estimated value
  • B. Cost right at the estimated value
  • C. Cost right at the actual value
  • D. Cost under the estimated value

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 363
The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

  • A. Expert judgment
  • B. Alternatives identification
  • C. Scope decomposition
  • D. Product analysis

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 364
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