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NEW QUESTION # 50
A security analyst is reviewing a packet capture in Wireshark that contains an FTP session from a potentially compromised machine. The analyst sets the following display filter: ftp. The analyst can see there are several RETR requests with 226 Transfer complete responses, but the packet list pane is not showing the packets containing the file transfer itself. Which of the following can the analyst perform to see the entire contents of the downloaded files?
- A. Change the display filter to f cp. accive. pore
- B. Change the display filter to f cp-daca and follow the TCP streams
- C. Change the display filter to tcg.port=20
- D. Navigate to the File menu and select FTP from the Export objects option
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best way to see the entire contents of the downloaded files in Wireshark is to change the display filter to ftp-data and follow the TCP streams. FTP-data is a protocol that is used to transfer files between an FTP client and server using TCP port 20. By filtering for ftp-data packets and following the TCP streams, the analyst can see the actual file data that was transferred during the FTP session
NEW QUESTION # 51
An end-of-life date was announced for a widely used OS. A business-critical function is performed by some machinery that is controlled by a PC, which is utilizing the OS that is approaching the end-of- life date. Which of the following best describes a security analyst's concern?
- A. An outage of machinery would cost the organization money.
- B. There are no compensating controls in place for the OS.
- C. Any discovered vulnerabilities will not be remediated.
- D. Support will not be available for the critical machinery
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A security analyst's concern is that any discovered vulnerabilities in the OS that is approaching the end-of-life date will not be remediated by the vendor, leaving the system exposed to potential attacks. The other options are not directly related to the security analyst's role or responsibility. Verified References: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, section 2.21
NEW QUESTION # 52
A Chief Information Security Officer wants to map all the attack vectors that the company faces each day. Which of the following recommendations should the company align their security controls around?
- A. OWASP
- B. MITRE ATT&CK
- C. OSSTMM
- D. Diamond Model Of Intrusion Analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. MITRE ATT&CK.
MITRE ATT&CK is a framework that maps the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of various threat actors and groups, based on real-world observations and dat
a. MITRE ATT&CK can help a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to map all the attack vectors that the company faces each day, as well as to align their security controls around the most relevant and prevalent threats. MITRE ATT&CK can also help the CISO to assess the effectiveness and maturity of their security posture, as well as to identify and prioritize the gaps and improvements .
The other options are not the best recommendations for mapping all the attack vectors that the company faces each day. OSSTMM (Open Source Security Testing Methodology Manual) (A) is a methodology that provides guidelines and best practices for conducting security testing and auditing, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis (B) is a model that analyzes the relationships and interactions between four elements of an intrusion: adversary, capability, infrastructure, and victim. The Diamond Model can help understand the characteristics and context of an intrusion, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups. OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) is a project that provides resources and tools for improving the security of web applications, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups.
NEW QUESTION # 53
A security analyst at a company called ACME Commercial notices there is outbound traffic to a host IP that resolves to https://offce365password.acme.co. The site's standard VPN logon page is www.acme.com/logon. Which of the following is most likely true?
- A. The security operations center is performing a routine password audit.
- B. This is a normal password change URL.
- C. A new VPN gateway has been deployed
- D. A social engineering attack is underway
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A social engineering attack is underway is the most likely explanation for the outbound traffic to a host IP that resolves to https://offce365password.acme.co, while the site's standard VPN logon page is www.acme.com/logon. A social engineering attack is a technique that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate people into performing actions or divulging information that benefit the attackers. A common type of social engineering attack is phishing, which involves sending fraudulent emails or other messages that appear to come from a legitimate source, such as a company or a colleague, and lure the recipients into clicking on malicious links or attachments, or entering their credentials or other sensitive information on fake websites. In this case, the attackers may have registered a domain name that looks similar to the company's domain name, but with a typo (offce365 instead of office365), and set up a fake website that mimics the company's VPN logon page. The attackers may have also sent phishing emails to the company's employees, asking them to reset their passwords or log in to their VPN accounts using the malicious link. The security analyst should investigate the source and content of the phishing emails, and alert the employees not to click on any suspicious links or enter their credentials on any untrusted websites. Official References:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered
NEW QUESTION # 54
An analyst recommends that an EDR agent collect the source IP address, make a connection to the firewall, and create a policy to block the malicious source IP address across the entire network automatically. Which of the following is the best option to help the analyst implement this recommendation?
- A. SIEM
- B. SOAR
- C. IoC
- D. SLA
Answer: B
Explanation:
SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) is the best option to help the analyst implement the recommendation, as it reflects the software solution that enables security teams to integrate and coordinate separate tools into streamlined threat response workflows and automate repetitive tasks. SOAR is a term coined by Gartner in 2015 to describe a technology that combines the functions of security incident response platforms, security orchestration and automation platforms, and threat intelligence platforms in one offering. SOAR solutions help security teams to collect inputs from various sources, such as EDR agents, firewalls, or SIEM systems, and perform analysis and triage using a combination of human and machine power. SOAR solutions also allow security teams to define and execute incident response procedures in a digital workflow format, using automation to perform low-level tasks or actions, such as blocking an IP address or quarantining a device. SOAR solutions can help security teams to improve efficiency, consistency, and scalability of their operations, as well as reduce mean time to detect (MTTD) and mean time to respond (MTTR) to threats. The other options are not as suitable as SOAR, as they do not match the description or purpose of the recommendation. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a software solution that collects and analyzes data from various sources, such as logs, events, or alerts, and provides security monitoring, threat detection, and incident response capabilities. SIEM solutions can help security teams to gain visibility, correlation, and context of their security data, but they do not provide automation or orchestration features like SOAR solutions. SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a document that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer, such as the quality, availability, or performance of the service. SLAs can help to manage customer expectations, formalize communication, and improve productivity and relationships, but they do not help to implement technical recommendations like SOAR solutions. IoC (Indicator of Compromise) is a piece of data or evidence that suggests a system or network has been compromised by a threat actor, such as an IP address, a file hash, or a registry key. IoCs can help to identify and analyze malicious activities or incidents, but they do not help to implement response actions like SOAR solutions.
NEW QUESTION # 55
A security analyst at a company called ACME Commercial notices there is outbound traffic to a host IP that resolves to https://offce365password.acme.co. The site's standard VPN logon page is www.acme.com/logon. Which of the following is most likely true?
- A. The security operations center is performing a routine password audit.
- B. This is a normal password change URL.
- C. A new VPN gateway has been deployed
- D. A social engineering attack is underway
Answer: D
Explanation:
A social engineering attack is underway is the most likely explanation for the outbound traffic to a host IP that resolves to https://offce365password.acme.co, while the site's standard VPN logon page is www.acme.com/logon. A social engineering attack is a technique that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate people into performing actions or divulging information that benefit the attackers. A common type of social engineering attack is phishing, which involves sending fraudulent emails or other messages that appear to come from a legitimate source, such as a company or a colleague, and lure the recipients into clicking on malicious links or attachments, or entering their credentials or other sensitive information on fake websites. In this case, the attackers may have registered a domain name that looks similar to the company's domain name, but with a typo (offce365 instead of office365), and set up a fake website that mimics the company's VPN logon page. The attackers may have also sent phishing emails to the company's employees, asking them to reset their passwords or log in to their VPN accounts using the malicious link. The security analyst should investigate the source and content of the phishing emails, and alert the employees not to click on any suspicious links or enter their credentials on any untrusted websites. Official Reference:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered
NEW QUESTION # 56
A security program was able to achieve a 30% improvement in MTTR by integrating security controls into a SIEM. The analyst no longer had to jump between tools. Which of the following best describes what the security program did?
- A. Security control plane
- B. Threat feed combination
- C. Data enrichment
- D. Single pane of glass
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A single pane of glass is a term that describes a unified view or interface that integrates multiple tools or data sources into one dashboard or console. A single pane of glass can help improve security operations by providing visibility, correlation, analysis, and alerting capabilities across various security controls and systems. A single pane of glass can also help reduce complexity, improve efficiency, and enhance decision making for security analysts. In this case, a security program was able to achieve a 30% improvement in MTTR by integrating security controls into a SIEM, which provides a single pane of glass for security operations. Official References:
https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack
NEW QUESTION # 57
An organization has experienced a breach of customer transactions. Under the terms of PCI DSS, which of the following groups should the organization report the breach to?
- A. PCI Security Standards Council
- B. Local law enforcement
- C. Card issuer
- D. Federal law enforcement
Answer: C
Explanation:
Under the terms of PCI DSS, an organization that has experienced a breach of customer transactions should report the breach to the card issuer. The card issuer is the financial institution that issues the payment cards to the customers and that is responsible for authorizing and processing the transactions. The card issuer may have specific reporting requirements and procedures for the organization to follow in the event of a breach. The organization should also notify other parties that may be affected by the breach, such as customers, law enforcement, or regulators, depending on the nature and scope of the breach. Official Reference: https://www.pcisecuritystandards.org/
NEW QUESTION # 58
The Chief Information Security Officer is directing a new program to reduce attack surface risks and threats as part of a zero trust approach. The IT security team is required to come up with priorities for the program. Which of the following is the best priority based on common attack frameworks?
- A. Conduct thorough incident response
- B. Reduce the administrator and privileged access accounts
- C. Employ a network-based IDS
- D. Enable SSO to enterprise applications
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best priority based on common attack frameworks for a new program to reduce attack surface risks and threats as part of a zero trust approach is to reduce the administrator and privileged access accounts. Administrator and privileged access accounts are accounts that have elevated permissions or capabilities to perform sensitive or critical tasks on systems or networks, such as installing software, changing configurations, accessing data, or granting access. Reducing the administrator and privileged access accounts can help minimize the attack surface, as it can limit the number of potential targets or entry points for attackers, as well as reduce the impact or damage of an attack if an account is compromised.
NEW QUESTION # 59
A cybersecurity analyst is reviewing SIEM logs and observes consistent requests originating from an internal host to a blocklisted external server. Which of the following best describes the activity that is taking place?
- A. Beaconing
- B. Data exfiltration
- C. Scanning
- D. Rogue device
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Beaconing is the best term to describe the activity that is taking place, as it refers to the periodic communication between an infected host and a blocklisted external server. Beaconing is a common technique used by malware to establish a connection with a command-and-control (C2) server, which can provide instructions, updates, or exfiltration capabilities to the malware. Beaconing can vary in frequency, duration, and payload, depending on the type and sophistication of the malware. The other terms are not as accurate as beaconing, as they describe different aspects of malicious activity. Data exfiltration is the unauthorized transfer of data from a compromised system to an external destination, such as a C2 server or a cloud storage service. Data exfiltration can be a goal or a consequence of malware infection, but it does not necessarily involve blocklisted servers or consistent requests. Rogue device is a device that is connected to a network without authorization or proper security controls. Rogue devices can pose a security risk, as they can introduce malware, bypass firewalls, or access sensitive data. However, rogue devices are not necessarily infected with malware or communicating with blocklisted servers. Scanning is the process of probing a network or a system for vulnerabilities, open ports, services, or other information. Scanning can be performed by legitimate administrators or malicious actors, depending on the intent and authorization. Scanning does not imply consistent requests or blocklisted servers, as it can target any network or system.
NEW QUESTION # 60
A security analyst has found the following suspicious DNS traffic while analyzing a packet capture:
* DNS traffic while a tunneling session is active.
* The mean time between queries is less than one second.
* The average query length exceeds 100 characters.
Which of the following attacks most likely occurred?
- A. DNS poisoning
- B. DNS zone transfer
- C. DNS spoofing
- D. DNS exfiltration
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
DNS exfiltration is a technique that uses the DNS protocol to transfer data from a compromised network or device to an attacker-controlled server. DNS exfiltration can bypass firewall rules and security products that do not inspect DNS traffic. The characteristics of the suspicious DNS traffic in the question match the indicators of DNS exfiltration, such as:
DNS traffic while a tunneling session is active: This implies that the DNS protocol is being used to create a covert channel for data transfer.
The mean time between queries is less than one second: This implies that the DNS queries are being sent at a high frequency to maximize the amount of data transferred.
The average query length exceeds 100 characters: This implies that the DNS queries are encoding large amounts of data in the subdomains or other fields of the DNS packets.
Official References:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/bypassing-security-products-via-dns-data-exfiltration/
https://www.reddit.com/r/CompTIA/comments/nvjuzt/dns_exfiltration_explanation/
NEW QUESTION # 61
A security analyst obtained the following table of results from a recent vulnerability assessment that was conducted against a single web server in the environment:
Which of the following should be completed first to remediate the findings?
- A. Perform proper sanitization on all fields
- B. Purchase an appropriate certificate from a trusted root CA
- C. Ask the web development team to update the page contents
- D. Add the IP address allow listing for control panel access
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The first action that should be completed to remediate the findings is to perform proper sanitization on all fields. Sanitization is a process that involves validating, filtering, or encoding any user input or data before processing or storing it on a system or application. Sanitization can help prevent various types of attacks, such as cross-site scripting (XSS), SQL injection, or command injection, that exploit unsanitized input or data to execute malicious scripts, commands, or queries on a system or application. Performing proper sanitization on all fields can help address the most critical and common vulnerability found during the vulnerability assessment, which is XSS.
NEW QUESTION # 62
A security analyst performs various types of vulnerability scans. Review the vulnerability scan results to determine the type of scan that was executed and if a false positive occurred for each device.
Instructions:
Select the Results Generated drop-down option to determine if the results were generated from a credentialed scan, non-credentialed scan, or a compliance scan.
For ONLY the credentialed and non-credentialed scans, evaluate the results for false positives and check the findings that display false positives. NOTE: If you would like to uncheck an option that is currently selected, click on the option a second time.
Lastly, based on the vulnerability scan results, identify the type of Server by dragging the Server to the results.
The Linux Web Server, File-Print Server and Directory Server are draggable.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset All button.
When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select the Next button to continue.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 63
A cybersecurity analyst is reviewing SIEM logs and observes consistent requests originating from an internal host to a blocklisted external server. Which of the following best describes the activity that is
taking place?
- A. Beaconing
- B. Data exfiltration
- C. Scanning
- D. Rogue device
Answer: A
Explanation:
Beaconing is the best term to describe the activity that is taking place, as it refers to the periodic communication between an infected host and a blocklisted external server. Beaconing is a common technique used by malware to establish a connection with a command-and-control (C2) server, which can provide instructions, updates, or exfiltration capabilities to the malware. Beaconing can vary in frequency, duration, and payload, depending on the type and sophistication of the malware. The other terms are not as accurate as beaconing, as they describe different aspects of malicious activity. Data exfiltration is the unauthorized transfer of data from a compromised system to an external destination, such as a C2 server or a cloud storage service. Data exfiltration can be a goal or a consequence of malware infection, but it does not necessarily involve blocklisted servers or consistent requests. Rogue device is a device that is connected to a network without authorization or proper security controls. Rogue devices can pose a security risk, as they can introduce malware, bypass firewalls, or access sensitive data. However, rogue devices are not necessarily infected with malware or communicating with blocklisted servers. Scanning is the process of probing a network or a system for vulnerabilities, open ports, services, or other information. Scanning can be performed by legitimate administrators or malicious actors, depending on the intent and authorization. Scanning does not imply consistent requests or blocklisted servers, as it can target any network or system.
NEW QUESTION # 64
A security team identified several rogue Wi-Fi access points during the most recent network scan. The network scans occur once per quarter. Which of the following controls would best all ow the organization to identity rogue devices more quickly?
- A. Implement a portable wireless scanning policy.
- B. Implement a BYOD policy.
- C. Implement a continuous monitoring policy.
- D. Change the frequency of network scans to once per month.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best control to allow the organization to identify rogue devices more quickly is
A) Implement a continuous monitoring policy. A continuous monitoring policy is a set of procedures and tools that enable an organization to detect and respond to unauthorized or anomalous activities on its network in real time or near real time. A continuous monitoring policy can help identify rogue access points as soon as they appear on the network, rather than waiting for quarterly or monthly scans. A continuous monitoring policy can also help improve the overall security posture and compliance of the organization by providing timely and accurate information about its network assets, vulnerabilities, threats, and incidents1.
NEW QUESTION # 65
A technician working at company.com received the following email:
After looking at the above communication, which of the following should the technician recommend to the security team to prevent exposure of sensitive information and reduce the risk of corporate data being stored on non-corporate assets?
- A. A VPN should be used to allow technicians to troubleshoot computer issues securely.
- B. An email banner should be implemented to identify emails coming from external sources.
- C. A rule should be placed on the DLP to flag employee IDs and serial numbers.
- D. Forwarding of corporate email should be disallowed by the company.
Answer: B
Explanation:
An email banner is a message that is added to the top or bottom of an email to provide some information or warning to the recipient. An email banner should be implemented to identify emails coming from external sources to prevent exposure of sensitive information and reduce the risk of corporate data being stored on non-corporate assets. An email banner can help employees recognize phishing or spoofing attempts and avoid clicking on malicious links or attachments. It can also remind employees not to share confidential information with external parties or forward corporate emails to personal accounts. The other options are not relevant or effective for this purpose. Reference: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 13; https://www.csoonline.com/article/3235970/what-is-spoofing-definition-and-how-to-prevent-it.html
NEW QUESTION # 66
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